Data privacy concepts and data classification

CompTIA Security+ Preparation · lesson 42 of 45 · 25 min

Domain 3 & 4 Review — Security Architecture & Operations

This practice set covers Security+ Domains 3 (Security Architecture) and 4 (Security Operations). Focus on cloud security, IAM, incident response, and forensics concepts.

Domain 3 & 4 — 15 Practice Questions

In the shared responsibility model, which is always the customer’s responsibility?

  • Physical data center security
  • Hypervisor patching
  • Data and user access management
  • Network infrastructure

Answer: Data and user access management
Customers always own their data and access controls regardless of cloud service model.

Which cloud tool continuously monitors for misconfigurations?

  • CASB
  • CSPM
  • SIEM
  • WAF

Answer: CSPM
CSPM continuously audits cloud configurations for security issues.

ZTNA grants broad network access like a traditional VPN.

  • True
  • False

Answer: False
ZTNA grants per-app access only — not broad network access.

Which NIST IR phase involves removing malware and patching the exploited vulnerability?

  • Containment
  • Eradication
  • Recovery
  • Detection

Answer: Eradication
Eradication removes the root cause of the incident.

The most volatile data type — lost when power is removed — is CPU _____ and cache.

Answer: registers
CPU registers and cache are the most volatile — lost immediately on power loss.

A write blocker prevents:

  • Malware execution
  • Writes to evidence media during acquisition
  • Network connections
  • Log deletion
  • Answer: Writes to evidence media during acquisition

Write blockers preserve forensic integrity by preventing any writes to evidence.

ALE = SLE × _____.

  • EF
  • AV
  • ARO
  • CVE

Answer: ARO
Annual Loss Expectancy = Single Loss Expectancy × Annual Rate of Occurrence.

Which regulation requires 72-hour breach notification to supervisory authorities?

  • HIPAA
  • PCI-DSS
  • GDPR
  • SOX

Answer: GDPR
GDPR requires notification within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach.

Separation of duties requires that no single person controls an entire critical process.

  • True
  • False

Answer: True
Separation of duties prevents fraud by requiring multiple people for critical processes.

Which firewall type can inspect Layer 7 content and decrypt TLS traffic?

  • Packet filter
  • Stateful
  • NGFW
  • Circuit-level

Answer: NGFW
Next-Generation Firewalls operate at Layer 7 and can perform TLS inspection.

Hiding data within an image file is called:

  • Encryption
  • Steganography
  • Hashing
  • Obfuscation
  • Answer: Steganography

Steganography conceals data within other files.

Which IAM concept provides enhanced controls for administrator accounts?

  • SSO
  • PAM
  • RBAC
  • MFA

Answer: PAM
PAM (Privileged Access Management) provides vaulting, session recording, and just-in-time access for admin accounts.

The GDPR right allowing individuals to request deletion of their personal data is called the right to be _____.

Answer: forgotten
The right to be forgotten (right to erasure) allows individuals to request deletion of their personal data.

A tabletop exercise involves executing actual IR procedures on live systems.

  • True
  • False

Answer: False
Tabletop exercises are discussion-based simulations — no live systems are touched.

Which cloud deployment model uses dedicated infrastructure for a single organization?

  • Public
  • Community
  • Private
  • Multi-cloud

Answer: Private
Private cloud provides dedicated infrastructure for one organization.


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