Third-party risk management and vendor assessment

CompTIA Security+ Preparation · lesson 43 of 45 · 25 min

Full Security+ Practice Assessment

This 20-question assessment covers all Security+ domains. Aim for 80%+ before sitting the real exam. Review any missed questions in the corresponding lesson.

Full Practice Assessment — 20 Questions

Which control category includes firewalls, encryption, and antivirus?

  • Physical
  • Managerial
  • Technical
  • Operational

Answer: Technical
Technical (logical) controls are implemented in hardware or software.

ECC is preferred over RSA on mobile devices because:

  • ECC is symmetric
  • ECC achieves equivalent security with smaller keys
  • ECC is faster for bulk encryption
  • ECC does not require certificates
  • Answer: ECC achieves equivalent security with smaller keys

Smaller ECC keys mean less computation — critical for battery-powered devices.

A credentialed vulnerability scan provides a more accurate view of patch levels than a non-credentialed scan.

  • True
  • False

Answer: True
Credentialed scans log in and inspect installed software and patches directly.

Which threat actor type maintains persistent access over months or years for espionage?

  • Script kiddie
  • Hacktivist
  • Nation-state / APT
  • Organized crime

Answer: Nation-state / APT
APTs are government-sponsored, sophisticated, and maintain long-term access.

The NIST IR phase that removes malware and patches the exploited vulnerability is called _____.

Answer: Eradication
Eradication removes the root cause of the incident.

Which social engineering attack targets executives specifically?

  • Phishing
  • Smishing
  • Whaling
  • Vishing

Answer: Whaling
Whaling is spear phishing targeting C-suite executives.

SLE = $80,000 and ARO = 0.25. What is the ALE?

  • $320,000
  • $20,000
  • $80,000
  • $40,000

Answer: $20,000
ALE = SLE × ARO = $80,000 × 0.25 = $20,000.

Which cloud security tool acts as a proxy between users and cloud services to enforce policy?

  • CSPM
  • CASB
  • SIEM
  • NAC

Answer: CASB
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) enforces policy between users and cloud services.

DMARC, DKIM, and SPF help prevent email domain spoofing.

  • True
  • False

Answer: True
These email authentication protocols verify sender identity and prevent spoofing.

Which access control model is used in government classified systems with Top Secret and Secret labels?

  • DAC
  • RBAC
  • MAC
  • ABAC

Answer: MAC
Mandatory Access Control uses system-enforced classification labels.

According to the order of volatility, which should be collected last?

  • RAM
  • CPU registers
  • Running processes
  • Backup tapes

Answer: Backup tapes
Backups are the least volatile — they persist longest and should be collected last.

Which Zero Trust technology replaces broad VPN access with per-app access?

  • SASE
  • ZTNA
  • CASB
  • NAC

Answer: ZTNA
ZTNA grants access to specific applications only after identity and device verification.

The international certifiable standard for an Information Security Management System is ISO/IEC _____.

Answer: 27001
ISO/IEC 27001 is the certifiable ISMS standard.

A company stops collecting Social Security Numbers because the liability outweighs the benefit. This is:

  • Risk transfer
  • Risk mitigation
  • Risk avoidance
  • Risk acceptance
  • Answer: Risk avoidance

Eliminating the activity that creates the risk is risk avoidance.

PCI-DSS applies only to banks and credit card companies.

  • True
  • False

Answer: False
PCI-DSS applies to any organization processing, storing, or transmitting payment card data.

Which firewall type specifically protects web applications from SQLi and XSS?

  • NGFW
  • Stateful
  • WAF
  • Packet filter

Answer: WAF
A WAF (Web Application Firewall) inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic for web-specific attacks.

Which hash algorithm is considered broken and should not be used for security?

  • SHA-256
  • SHA-3
  • MD5
  • HMAC

Answer: MD5
MD5 is cryptographically broken — collisions can be generated quickly.

Which IAM principle requires that no single person controls an entire critical process?

  • Least privilege
  • Need to know
  • Separation of duties
  • Account lifecycle

Answer: Separation of duties
Separation of duties prevents fraud by requiring multiple people for critical processes.

A forensic bit-for-bit image captures deleted files and slack space.

  • True
  • False

Answer: True
A forensic image is a sector-by-sector copy capturing all data including deleted files.

Which GDPR principle requires collecting only the minimum personal data necessary?

  • Data retention
  • Data minimization
  • Privacy by design
  • Right to erasure

Answer: Data minimization
Data minimization requires collecting only what is necessary for the stated purpose.


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